Free RD Practice Questions
10 free, exam-style Registered Dietitian (RD) practice questions with answers and
explanations. No signup required. Work through them below, then take the
full free RD practice test to study every exam domain.
Question 1
A hospitalized patient has an albumin of 2.5 g/dL and a CRP of 12 mg/dL (elevated). The RDN should interpret the low albumin as MOST likely reflecting:
- Chronic protein malnutrition from inadequate dietary intake
- An inflammatory response rather than nutritional status alone
- Liver cirrhosis with impaired protein synthesis
- Kidney disease with urinary protein losses
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B - An inflammatory response rather than nutritional status alone
Question 2
An elderly patient with chronic alcoholism presents with confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. This triad of symptoms is characteristic of Wernicke's encephalopathy caused by deficiency of:
- Thiamin (B1)
- Niacin (B3)
- Riboflavin (B2)
- Pyridoxine (B6)
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A - Thiamin (B1)
Question 3
Which of the following is an INCORRECT PES statement?
- Inadequate fiber intake related to low vegetable consumption as evidenced by estimated fiber intake of 8g/day and reported constipation.
- Excessive caloric intake related to large portion sizes as evidenced by average intake of 3,500 kcal/day and weight gain of 15 lbs in 3 months.
- Type 2 diabetes related to obesity as evidenced by A1C of 9.0%.
- Food/nutrition-related knowledge deficit related to heart failure diagnosis as evidenced by patient's inability to identify high-sodium foods.
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C - Type 2 diabetes related to obesity as evidenced by A1C of 9.0%.
Question 4
A patient with diabetes reports a blood glucose of 55 mg/dL and is alert and able to swallow. According to the 'Rule of 15,' the FIRST action is to:
- Eat a full meal immediately
- Administer glucagon injection
- Consume 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate
- Drink 8 oz of milk and wait
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C - Consume 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate
Question 5
A patient tells the RDN, 'I've been eating fast food every night because I'm too tired to cook after work.' Using motivational interviewing, the RDN's BEST response is:
- 'I understand you're tired after work, but fast food really isn't the best choice for your health long-term.'
- 'You're feeling exhausted after work, which makes cooking feel impossible. What are some options that might work for your situation?'
- 'It sounds like work is draining, but many of my clients find ways to prepare healthy meals despite being busy.'
- 'I can see you're struggling with time after work. Let me suggest some quick meal prep strategies you can try.'
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: B - 'You're feeling exhausted after work, which makes cooking feel impossible. What are some options that might work for your situation?'
Question 6
The pathophysiology of refeeding syndrome involves an insulin surge upon carbohydrate reintroduction that drives which electrolytes from the extracellular to the intracellular space?
- Sodium, chloride, and bicarbonate
- Calcium and iron
- Zinc and selenium
- Phosphorus, potassium, and magnesium
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: D - Phosphorus, potassium, and magnesium
Question 7
A patient requires 1,500 mL of a 1.0 kcal/mL formula delivered over 20 hours via continuous infusion. The goal rate is:
- 75 mL/hr
- 100 mL/hr
- 50 mL/hr
- 62.5 mL/hr
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A - 75 mL/hr
Question 8
A foodservice worker with a staphylococcal skin infection on their hand prepares egg salad without gloves. Customers develop nausea and vomiting within 1-6 hours. The key characteristic of S. aureus foodborne illness is that the toxin:
- Is easily destroyed by cooking to 165°F
- Only causes illness after 72 hours
- Is produced only in canned foods
- Is heat-stable and NOT destroyed by reheating
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: D - Is heat-stable and NOT destroyed by reheating
Question 9
A cafeteria has fixed costs of $6,000/month. Each meal has a variable cost of $3.00 and sells for $8.00. The breakeven point in number of meals is:
- 750 meals
- 1,000 meals
- 1,200 meals
- 1,500 meals
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: C - 1,200 meals
Question 10
A hemodialysis patient has a serum phosphorus of 6.8 mg/dL. The RDN educates the patient that phosphorus binders should be taken:
- WITH meals and snacks to bind dietary phosphorus in the GI tract
- On an empty stomach to maximize absorption and effectiveness
- At bedtime to prevent overnight phosphorus accumulation in blood
- Only when serum phosphorus exceeds 7.5 mg/dL per clinical guidelines
Show answer & explanation
Correct answer: A - WITH meals and snacks to bind dietary phosphorus in the GI tract